ACT · Practice test 4

171 questions, each with its skill and the official answer.

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Shared statement

Question English · 1

Multiple choice

Question English · 1 — 1. Which choice most clearly suggests that the boulders appear to be haphazard? A. No Change B. scattered C. sitting D. placed

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Question English · 2

Multiple choice

Question English · 2 — 2. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. Some—like H. Some, like J. Some like

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Question English · 3

Multiple choice

Question English · 3 — 3. The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion (adjusting the punctuation as needed). Should the underlined portion be kept or deleted? A. Kept, because it helps explain why Marina is knowledgeable about…

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Question English · 4

Multiple choice

Question English · 4 — 4. Which choice best avoids wordiness and redundancy in context? F. No Change G. at one time covered the area of H. once covered over J. covered

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Question English · 5

Multiple choice

Question English · 5 — 5. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. Then, as shards C. Because shards D. Shards

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Question English · 6

Multiple choice

Question English · 6 — 6. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. past, the overlying layer of rock would have H. passed, the overlying layer of rock J. past, the overlying layer of rock

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Question English · 7

Multiple choice

Question English · 7 — 7. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. them C. that D. it

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Question English · 8

Multiple choice

Question English · 8 — 8. At this point, the writer is considering adding a transition. Which transition word or phrase, if added here, would be most effective in terms of logic and cohesion? F. in spite of this, G. nevertheless, H. for…

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Shared statement

Question English · 9

Multiple choice

Question English · 9 — 9. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. crevices’ in the rock C. rock’s crevices’ D. rocks crevices

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Question English · 10

Multiple choice

Question English · 10 — 10. Which choice most effectively concludes the essay by referencing what the narrator learned about Elephant Rocks State Park? F. No Change G. enjoying the view of the elephants with the other visitors. H. my feet sore…

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Question English · 11

Multiple choice

Question English · 11 — 11. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. launched, a new national pastime— C. launched a new national pastime: D. launched a new national pastime

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Question English · 12

Multiple choice

Question English · 12 — 12. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. was being H. was soon J. were

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Shared statement

Question English · 13

Multiple choice

Question English · 13 — 13. Which choice most effectively creates a connection between the preceding paragraph and this paragraph? A. No Change B. That excitement inspired one of NRK’s most ambitious projects— C. NRK’s producers undertook a…

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Question English · 14

Multiple choice

Question English · 14 — 14. Which choice best maintains the stylistic pattern established in the sentence? F. No Change G. some people stood alone on rocky outcroppings; H. some, on rocky outcroppings, stood alone; J. some stood alone on rocky…

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Question English · 15

Multiple choice

Question English · 15 — 15. Which choice best avoids wordiness and redundancy in context? A. No Change B. unsurpassed, record-breaking success and achievement C. exceptional, incomparable, and rare triumph D. unusual and unprecedented event

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Question English · 16

Multiple choice

Question English · 16 — 16. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence to the beginning of the essay: Many people find furniture useful. Should the writer make this addition here? F. Yes, because the sentence helps…

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Question English · 17

Multiple choice

Question English · 17 — 17. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. which C. whom D. who

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Question English · 18

Multiple choice

Question English · 18 — 18. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. which H. this J. it

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Question English · 19

Multiple choice

Question English · 19 — 19. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. mattress, folded, into thirds C. mattress, folded into thirds D. mattress folded, into thirds

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Question English · 20

Multiple choice

Question English · 20 — 20. Which transition word or phrase is most logical in context? F. No Change G. Similarly, H. Moreover, J. Thus,

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Question English · 21

Multiple choice

Question English · 21 — 21. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. which served C. serving D. Delete the underlined portion.

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Question English · 22

Multiple choice

Question English · 22 — 22. Which choice is least redundant in context? F. No Change G. conversion, made possible by Goode, H. conversion, simplified by Goode, J. conversion

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Question English · 23

Multiple choice

Question English · 23 — 23. Given that all the following choices are accurate, which one most effectively introduces this paragraph by echoing a point made about the cabinet bed in the first paragraph of the essay? A. No Change B. During this…

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Question English · 24

Multiple choice

Question English · 24 — 24. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? F. No Change G. Over one hundred years later (which is kind of a long time), H. Hard to believe that, over one hundred years later, J. Even over one hundred…

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Question English · 25

Multiple choice

Question English · 25 — 25. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to describe furniture making in the late nineteenth century. Would this essay accomplish that purpose? A. Yes, because it compares Goode’s furniture- making technique to…

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Shared statement

Question English · 26

Multiple choice

Question English · 26 — 26. Which transition word or phrase is most logical in context? F. No Change G. On the other hand, H. Furthermore, J. There,

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Question English · 27

Multiple choice

Question English · 27 — 27. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion (adjusting the punctuation as necessary), the essay would primarily lose a detail: A. revealing that Glennie was the first to make a career as a solo…

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Question English · 28

Multiple choice

Question English · 28 — 28. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? F. No Change G. using her innovational and originative ways to make a hit with audiences. H. roping in her audiences with that pioneering musical style. J.…

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Question English · 29

Multiple choice

Question English · 29 — 29. Which choice is least redundant in context? A. No Change B. that she receives by way of her feet. C. in the soles of her bare feet. D. and detect certain pitches.

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Question English · 30

Multiple choice

Question English · 30 — 30. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. as H. so J. Delete the underlined portion.

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Shared statement

Question English · 31

Multiple choice

Question English · 31 — 31. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. have C. are D. is

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Question English · 32

Multiple choice

Question English · 32 — 32. The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion. Should the underlined portion be kept or deleted? F. Kept, because it clarifies the specific nuisance caused by moths and why clothing needs protection from…

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Question English · 33

Multiple choice

Question English · 33 — 33. Which choice is least redundant in context? A. No Change B. practice, viewed as a way to repel moths naturally, C. commonly used practice D. practice

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Question English · 34

Multiple choice

Question English · 34 — 34. Which choice makes it clear that Holopainen was organizing and classifying the various gases emitted from the mountain birch tree? F. No Change G. cataloguing H. counting J. placing

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Question English · 35

Multiple choice

Question English · 35 — 35. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. of the plants C. of which D. Delete the underlined portion.

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Question English · 36

Multiple choice

Question English · 36 — 36. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. theorized: that H. theorized, that J. theorized that

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Question English · 37

Multiple choice

Question English · 37 — 37. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. which was engaged C. being engaged D. Delete the underlined portion.

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Question English · 38

Multiple choice

Question English · 38 — 38. Which transition word or phrase is most logical in context? F. No Change G. For example, H. Moreover, J. Even so,

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Question English · 39

Multiple choice

Question English · 39 — 39. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the essay: Using portable collection chambers, the researchers trapped, and then analyzed, gases released from various plant species. The sentence would most…

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Shared statement

Question English · 40

Multiple choice

Question English · 40 — 40. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to compare methods of survival used by two plant species native to Scandinavia. Would this essay accomplish that purpose? F. Yes, because it lists the various defenses…

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Question English · 41

Multiple choice

Question English · 41 — 41. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? A. No Change B. enthusiast, I often struggle to distinguish the great performances C. enthusiast I often struggle to distinguish the great performances,…

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Question English · 42

Multiple choice

Question English · 42 — 42. The writer wants to emphasize that the nuances of a performance can separate the very best athletes from others. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? F. No Change G. the impressive elements separating H. a…

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Question English · 43

Multiple choice

Question English · 43 — 43. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the essay would primarily lose: A. a detail establishing the importance of the essay’s main argument about replacing human judges. B. an explanation related to…

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Question English · 44

Multiple choice

Question English · 44 — 44. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. footage, effectively learning to identify tricks, distinguish between a good landing, and an okay landing, and see small flaws H.…

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Question English · 45

Multiple choice

Question English · 45 — 45. The writer wants to raise and refute a potential counterpoint related to outsourcing Olympic judging to AI. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? A. No Change B. Given the pace at which technology advances, AI…

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Question English · 46

Multiple choice

Question English · 46 — 46. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? F. No Change G. therefore, H. so J. Delete the underlined portion.

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Question English · 47

Multiple choice

Question English · 47 — 47. Which choice is clearest and most grammatically acceptable in context? A. No Change B. Complementing human judges with this C. Complimenting human judges with AI D. Complementing human judges with AI

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Question English · 48

Multiple choice

Question English · 48 — 48. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? F. No Change G. multifaceted athletic displays and flashy moves or help settle things when an athlete asks for a second look. H. all the hard-to-judge stuff…

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Question English · 49

Multiple choice

Question English · 49 — 49. Which choice best concludes the essay by framing the essay’s argument in a way that assumes widespread agreement? A. No Change B. it’s time to make that change happen! C. who could be opposed to that? D. let’s give…

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Question English · 50

Multiple choice

Question English · 50 — 50. The writer is considering adding the following accurate sentence to the essay: The X Games even introduced AI to help judge its snowboarding competitions. If the writer were to add the sentence, it would most…

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Question Math · 1

Multiple choice

Question Math · 1 — 1. Circles A and B are externally tangent to each other, and 3 sides of rectangle RSTU are tangent to each circle, as shown. The radii of circles A and B are both 5 centimeters. What is the length, in centimeters, of ‾…

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Question Math · 2

Multiple choice

Question Math · 2 — 2. The numbers of gallons of gas purchased at a gas station by 10 randomly selected customers are: 15 , 27 , 15 , 30 , 24 , 30 , 30 , 16 , 22 , 29 What is the sample mean number of gallons of gas purchased by these…

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Question Math · 3

Multiple choice

Question Math · 3 — 3. An event coordinator is planning a party and needs 5 liters of juice for every 12 guests. There are 3 liters of juice available, and there will be 36 guests at the party. How many additional liters of juice are…

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Question Math · 4

Multiple choice

Question Math · 4 — 4. The yearly profits, in dollars, of a small business are modeled by P ( t ) = t 3 + 3 t 2 − 4 , where P is the yearly profit and t is the number of years since the business started. What are the profits of this small…

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Question Math · 5

Multiple choice

Question Math · 5 — 5. Which of the following equations has the solution set {4,−7} ? A. (x − 4) (x + 7) = 0 B. (x − 3) (x − 11) = 0 C. (x − 3) (x + 11) = 0 D. (x + 4) (x − 7) = 0

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Question Math · 6

Multiple choice

Question Math · 6 — 6. The picture of a bus shown is drawn to scale, where 1 inch represents 6 2 _ 3 feet. The length of the picture of the bus is 4 1 _ 2 inches. Which of the following is closest to the length, in feet, of the actual bus?…

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Question Math · 7

Multiple choice

Question Math · 7 — 7. Which of the following matrices is equal to [ 6 −2 10 −5 ] + [ −1 2 −4 4 ] ? A. [ 4 1 5 0 ] B. [ 7 4 14 9 ] C. [ 5 0 6 −1 ] D. [ 8 −3 14 −9 ]

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Question Math · 8

Multiple choice

Question Math · 8 — 8. During an event, a store gave a free T-shirt to every 24 th customer that entered the store and a free gift certificate to every 60 th customer that entered the store. Given that 500 customers entered the store…

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Question Math · 9

Multiple choice

Question Math · 9 — 9. Given the rectangular prism shown, which of the following statements is true? B A E D C G F H A. A , B , F , and H lie in the same plane. B. B , C , and D lie on the same line. C. Plane ABCD is parallel to plane AEHD…

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Question Math · 10

Multiple choice

Question Math · 10 — 10. Consider the function g (x) = −2 x 2 and its graph in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. Which of the following transformations on the graph of y = g (x) will result in the graph of y = g (x) + 7 ? F. A shift of 7…

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Question Math · 11

Multiple choice

Question Math · 11 — 11. The table gives observed data values for variables x and y . Using the prediction equation of the form y = kx that best fits the given data, which of the following values is closest to the predicted y -value for an…

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Question Math · 12

Multiple choice

Question Math · 12 — 12. Triangles nXYZ and nABC are shown with side lengths given in inches. Given nXYZ ~ nABC , what is the value of x ? F. −4 G. 4_ 7 H. 8 J. 12

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Question Math · 13

Multiple choice

Question Math · 13 — 13. For the first 10 weeks of his new job, Bill’s take-home pay was $200 a week. Each week he put $30 in a savings plan. His take-home pay increased to $240 beginning with the 11 th week, and he increased his weekly…

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Question Math · 14

Multiple choice

Question Math · 14 — 14. If (x + k) 2 = x 2 + 70x + k 2 , then k = ? F. 35 G. 70 H. 140 J. 280

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Question Math · 15

Multiple choice

Question Math · 15 — 15. For what value of x is the given function undefined? f (x) = 5 _ 2 (x − 7) A. 7 B. 5 C. 0 D. −7

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Question Math · 16

Multiple choice

Question Math · 16 — 16. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, how many points are both 5 coordinate units from the origin and also 2 coordinate units from the line y = 0 ? F. 0 G. 1 H. 2 J. 4

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Question Math · 17

Multiple choice

Question Math · 17 — 17. When x = 2 , 2 _ 2 + 2 _ x + 2 = ? A. 1 _ 2 B. 4 _ 5 C. 2 D. 5 _ 2

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Question Math · 18

Multiple choice

Question Math · 18 — 18. For all real values of x , which of the following expressions is equal to 9 x 2 + 9x − 4 ? F. 9 ( x 2 + x − 4) G. (9x + 4) (x − 1) H. (3x − 4) (3x + 1) J. (3x + 4) (3x − 1)

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Question Math · 19

Multiple choice

Question Math · 19 — 19. This summer, a soccer camp will have 450 participants. To help in ordering shirts for everyone, the camp manager surveyed a random sample of the participants to find out their shirt size. The table shows the results…

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Question Math · 20

Multiple choice

Question Math · 20 — 20. For all x , 12 x 2 + 4 _ 4 = ? F. 3 x 2 G. 3 x 2 + 1 H. 3 x 2 + 4 J. 12 x 2

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Question Math · 21

Multiple choice

Question Math · 21 — 21. In the given figure, ∠RVS is congruent to ∠UVT and ‾ SV is congruent to ‾ VT . One of the following angle congruences completes what is needed to prove as directly as possible that nRSV is congruent to nUTV by…

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Question Math · 22

Multiple choice

Question Math · 22 — 22. A customer paid $42.60 for a computer hard drive after receiving a discount of 75% off the original price and an additional 20% off that discounted price. What was the original price of the hard drive? F. $136.32 G.…

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Question Math · 23

Multiple choice

Question Math · 23 — 23. The first 4 terms of a geometric sequence are given. 3i , −6 , −12i , 24 , … What is the 5 th term of this sequence? A. −48 B. −48i C. 48 D. 48i

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Question Math · 24

Multiple choice

Question Math · 24 — 24. The graph of the function y = 6 cos x is given in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. What are the amplitude and period of the function? F. The amplitude is 6 , and the period is π . G. The amplitude is 6 , and the…

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Question Math · 25

Multiple choice

Question Math · 25 — 25. The fairness of a particular coin is being investigated by flipping the coin. Each flip of the coin results in either a head or a tail. Among the following experimental results, which one provides the most evidence…

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Question Math · 26

Multiple choice

Question Math · 26 — 26. A certain television show begins at 7:00 p.m. and ends at 7:30 p.m. Of this time interval, 25% is commercial time. Each commercial lasts 30 seconds. What is the total number of commercials included in the show? F. 4…

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Question Math · 27

Multiple choice

Question Math · 27 — 27. The table given lists the engine size, x liters, and the weight, w kilograms, of 10 vehicles. A linear model for the data in the table is wˆ = 391x + 376 , where wˆ is the predicted weight in kilograms for an engine…

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Question Math · 28

Multiple choice

Question Math · 28 — 28. If 3x − y _ x + y = 5 _ 8 , then x _ y = ? F. 2 _ 19 G. 13 _ 19 H. 5 _ 8 J. 13 _ 7

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Question Math · 29

Multiple choice

Question Math · 29 — 29. Which of the following statements about rational and irrational numbers is true? A. The sum of any rational number and any irrational number is a rational number. B. The sum of any rational number and any irrational…

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Question Math · 30

Multiple choice

Question Math · 30 — 30. How many solutions does the given equation have? 1 _ √ _ x + 1 = 0 F. 0 G. 1 H. 2 J. 3

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Question Math · 31

Multiple choice

Question Math · 31 — 31. One side of a triangle in the standard ( x,y ) coordinate plane is parallel to the x -axis, and another side is parallel to the y -axis. Two of the vertices of the triangle are ( 3,4 ) and ( −1,−2 ) . What is the…

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Question Math · 32

Multiple choice

Question Math · 32 — 32. Which of the following is 1 of the solutions of the quadratic equation 2 x 2 + 3x + 8 = 0 ? F. 3 _ 4 + i √ _ 55 _ 4 G. − 3 _ 4 + i √ _ 55 _ 4 H. 3 _ 4 − √ _ 55 _ 4 J. − 3 _ 4 − √ _ 55 _ 4

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Question Math · 33

Multiple choice

Question Math · 33 — 33. As shown, the number line between 0 and 3 is divided into 10 segments of equal length by points A through I . Which of the following statements about √ _ 3 is true? 0 E F G H A B C D I 3 A. √ _ 3 is between 0 and A…

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Question Math · 34

Multiple choice

Question Math · 34 — 34. Your high school mathematics team is one of 8 teams competing in a tournament. The other 7 teams are Central Team A, Central Team B, Kennedy, Meadows, West Team A, West Team B, and West Team C. The 8 teams are…

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Question Math · 35

Multiple choice

Question Math · 35 — 35. For a measure of time, t , which of the following functions is that of an exponential growth function? A. y = √ _ t B. y = 3 t 10 C. y = 1. 05 t D. y = t t

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Question Math · 36

Multiple choice

Question Math · 36 — 36. A net of a cube is given. The perimeter of the net is 952 cm. To the nearest 1 cubic centimeter, what is the volume of the cube represented by this net? F. 27,744 G. 29,373 H. 62,413 J. 314,432

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Question Math · 37

Multiple choice

Question Math · 37 — 37. For the 3 triangles in the figure, nABC is congruent to nDEF ( nABC ≅ nDEF ), and nDEF is similar to nGHI ( nDEF ~ nGHI ). Which of the following distances is necessarily equal to (DE) (GI) _ (GH) ? A C D E F B I H…

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Question Math · 38

Multiple choice

Question Math · 38 — 38. Point P (a,b) is reflected across the x -axis and then the reflection is translated 2 units in the positive y -direction in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. What are the coordinates of the resulting point? F.…

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Question Math · 39

Multiple choice

Question Math · 39 — 39. The hyperbolas x 2 _ 9 − y 2 _ 4 = 1 and y 2 _ 36 − x 2 _ 25 = 1 are graphed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. Which of the following equations is an ellipse that intersects all 4 vertices of the hyperbolas? y…

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Question Math · 40

Multiple choice

Question Math · 40 — 40. The side lengths of a specific right triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm. Which of the following equations, when solved for x , gives the measure of the smallest angle of the triangle? (Note: For a triangle with…

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Question Math · 41

Multiple choice

Question Math · 41 — 41. Mandy and her husband, Collier, work for the Krenke Furniture Outlet. The pay for each consists of $11 per hour worked, plus a commission of 8% of their individual sales total. For 1 certain week, Mandy worked 3…

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Question Math · 42

Multiple choice

Question Math · 42 — 42. A polynomial function, f , has zeros of −2 , 3 , and i . The polynomial function f has no other real zeros. One of the following is the graph of y = f (x) in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. Which one? F. G. x y…

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Question Math · 43

Multiple choice

Question Math · 43 — 43. The sum of the infinite geometric series −16 + 8 + −4 + … is closest to which of the following? A. −16 B. −12 C. −11 D. −8

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Question Math · 44

Multiple choice

Question Math · 44 — 44. A rectangle has a length of 24 feet and a width of 36 feet. What is the area, in square inches, of the rectangle? F. 6 G. 864 H. 10,368 J. 124,416

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Question Math · 45

Multiple choice

Question Math · 45 — 45. How many integers between 0 and 9,999 have at least 1 digit that is a 5 ? A. 10 3 · 4 B. 10 3 − 9 3 C. 10 4 D. 10 4 − 9 4

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Shared statement

Question Reading · 1

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 1 — 1. The main purpose of the first paragraph of Passage A (lines 1–6) is to: A. describe where the narrator and her family live. B. indicate the narrator’s frustration upon leaving home. C. help establish the narrator’s…

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Question Reading · 2

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 2 — 2. Which of the following statements most effectively summarizes the main point of the fifth paragraph of Passage A (lines 34–41)? F. The homesickness the narrator would feel upon leaving California was difficult to…

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Question Reading · 3

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 3 — 3. Which of the following quotations from Passage B most effectively encapsulates a main theme of the passage? A. “We weathered five winters in northern New England” (lines 57–58) B. “I have a feeling that this is not…

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Question Reading · 4

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 4 — 4. In the context of Passage B, the fourth paragraph (lines 73–84) mainly serves to: F. demonstrate that the narrator’s predilection for moving began when she was in college and continued as she tried to settle on a…

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Question Reading · 5

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 5 — 5. The narrator of Passage B makes clear that the moves she chose to make while she was in her twenties and thirties often led to: A. unforeseen opportunity. B. extreme good fortune. C. unexpected challenges. D.…

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Question Reading · 6

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 6 — 6. Based on the last paragraph of Passage A (lines 42–48) and the last paragraph of Passage B (lines 85–93), which of the following statements best captures a difference in the way the narrators describe the prospect of…

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Question Reading · 7

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 7 — 7. Based on the passages, both narrators attribute their childhood moves to: A. changes related to their fathers’ work. B. their parents’ dissatisfaction with their children’s schooling. C. pressure from their extended…

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Question Reading · 8

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 8 — 8. Which of the following quotations from Passage A serves as the most direct example of anagnorisis, as it is defined in Passage B? F. “I learned how to leave home from a young age” (line 1) G. “I remember the European…

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Question Reading · 9

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 9 — 9. Based on the passages, the narrators’ perspectives of home differ in that: A. the Passage A narrator believes that home is where her family is, whereas the Passage B narrator establishes her home based on her career.…

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Shared statement

Question Reading · 10

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 10 — 10. The passage most strongly suggests that the stone walls of Great Zimbabwe still stand today in part because the Great Zimbabweans built the walls with: F. layers of stone that gradually recessed. G. layers of stone…

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Question Reading · 11

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 11 — 11. The main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 36–44) is to: A. summarize accepted assumptions about the Great Zimbabwean society. B. indicate that the Great Zimbabwean society grew over time. C. contrast the Great…

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Question Reading · 12

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 12 — 12. The passage indicates that, compared to other stone complexes on the Zimbabwean plateau, the stone complex of Great Zimbabwe is notable because of its: F. age. G. scale. H. opulence. J. ingenuity.

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Question Reading · 13

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 13 — 13. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage that the Great Zimbabweans chose granite to build their stone walls in part because granite: A. weighs less than other stones that were available. B. is smoother…

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Question Reading · 14

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 14 — 14. As it is used in line 27, the word fitted most nearly means: F. matched. G. qualified. H. equipped. J. assembled.

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Question Reading · 15

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 15 — 15. Based on the passage, the author would most likely agree that, over time, the Great Zimbabweans’ technique for wall building became: A. less labor intensive. B. less detail oriented. C. more sophisticated. D. more…

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Question Reading · 16

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 16 — 16. Based on the passage, scholars would most likely agree that the stone walls of Great Zimbabwe were built to serve as: F. defensive structures for the elites’ families. G. monuments honoring religious deities. H.…

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Question Reading · 17

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 17 — 17. According to the passage, how many bird sculptures have been found in the ruins of Great Zimbabwe? A. 5 B. 6 C. 8 D. 16

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Question Reading · 18

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 18 — 18. The passage author mentions the flag of modern Zimbabwe mainly to: F. reveal the symbolic meaning of the bird sculptures of Great Zimbabwe. G. emphasize the lasting significance of the bird sculptures of Great…

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Shared statement

Question Reading · 19

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 19 — 19. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the passage author would most likely regard which of the following research documents as containing only what she calls “information”? A. Entries in the diary of a…

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Question Reading · 20

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 20 — 20. In lines 34–41, the passage author most nearly indicates that facts can help evoke emotion if the facts: F. document a profound historical moment. G. introduce a reader to a new experience. H. appeal to a reader’s…

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Question Reading · 21

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 21 — 21. In the context of the passage, the main purpose of the quotation from Hard Times (lines 73–78) is to: A. cite an encyclopedic definition of a horse. B. provide an example of factual information that is potentially…

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Question Reading · 22

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 22 — 22. The passage author most strongly suggests that the central element of fiction is primarily derived from: F. identifying walled-off emotions. G. creatively distorting facts. H. information and explanation. J. imagery…

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Question Reading · 23

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 23 — 23. According to the passage, being in the company of a group of scholars led the passage author to have questions about: A. time-honored methods of writing fiction. B. the nature of collaborative research. C. her role…

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Question Reading · 24

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 24 — 24. The passage author indicates which of the following details about the setting of her fiction? F. Most of her fiction is set in the present. G. Most of her fiction is set in the past. H. The setting is unclear in her…

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Question Reading · 25

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 25 — 25. When the passage author states that she imagined the Williamsburg sugar factory as background, she most nearly means that she: A. spent more time researching how sugar was processed in Williamsburg generally than on…

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Question Reading · 26

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 26 — 26. The passage author uses the phrases “pouring in” (line 64) and “bubbling up” (line 65) primarily to indicate: F. that narrowing her research focus is difficult. G. that she feels inundated by information. H. her…

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Question Reading · 27

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 27 — 27. As it is used in line 79, the phrase caught up in most nearly means: A. recovering from. B. dreaming of. C. remiss in. D. lost in.

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Shared statement

Question Reading · 28

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 28 — 28. Which of the following statements best summarizes the results of the Wales Man vs. Horse Marathon over the time period described in the passage? F. Horses won every year except 2004 and 2007, when humans won. G.…

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Question Reading · 29

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 29 — 29. Evidence in the last paragraph (lines 73–81) primarily serves to support which of the following claims? A. Large mammals, including humans, have a greater “sustainable distance” than other animals. B. Humans are…

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Question Reading · 30

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 30 — 30. According to the passage, humans’ two-legged stability is most directly attributed to their: F. strong Achilles tendons. G. big gluteus maximus muscles. H. high percentage of slow-twitch muscle fibers. J. long…

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Question Reading · 31

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 31 — 31. According to the passage, the galloping range of animals such as horses and dogs is limited primarily as a consequence of their: A. torsos and hips not counter-rotating as they run quickly. B. large leg and foot…

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Question Reading · 32

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 32 — 32. In the context of the passage, the passage author uses the description “vast throngs” (line 78) most nearly to: F. illustrate that humans, like some animals, run in groups. G. emphasize that many people commonly run…

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Question Reading · 33

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 33 — 33. As it relates to the passage, one main function of the chart is to further illustrate: A. why other large mammals are generally faster runners than humans over long distances. B. the running speed advantage that is…

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Question Reading · 34

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 34 — 34. Based on the passage and the chart, does the information in the chart support the passage author’s claim that both horses and dogs can, in general, easily out-sprint us by galloping (lines 56–57)? F. Yes, because…

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Question Reading · 35

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 35 — 35. Compared to the average distance-running speed of wildebeests, as described in the passage, the fastest trotting speed of ponies, as depicted in the chart, is: A. roughly half as fast. B. somewhat slower. C. the…

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Question Reading · 36

Multiple choice

Question Reading · 36 — 36. Based on the chart, which of the following choices represents the most likely outcome in a short race between a human running at the top of the speed range for a typical jogger and a horse, pony, and dog running at…

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Shared statement

Question Science · 1

Multiple choice

Question Science · 1 — 1. The following table lists the atomic number for each of the 5 heavy metals for which concentrations were determined. Heavy metal Atomic number Lead 82 Cadmium 48 Chromium 24 Nickel 28 Copper 29 A student claimed that…

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Question Science · 2

Multiple choice

Question Science · 2 — 2. Based on Table 1, for which of the heavy metals was the average concentration higher in cowpea plants grown in polluted soil than in maize plants grown in polluted soil? F. Chromium only G. Chromium and copper only…

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Question Science · 3

Multiple choice

Question Science · 3 — 3. Based on Table 2, which combination of plant and soil type resulted in the smallest difference between the average plant height at the end of Week 3 and the average plant height at the end of Week 4? A. Plant: maize…

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Question Science · 4

Multiple choice

Question Science · 4 — 4. Consider the kind of plant and soil type for which the average concentration of nickel at the end of 6 weeks of growth was 22.8 ppm. What was the average plant height for those plants at the end of Week 2? F. 13.0 cm…

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Question Science · 5

Multiple choice

Question Science · 5 — 5. Suppose the greater the total average concentration of heavy metals in a plant grown in polluted soil, the more effective the plant would have been at mitigating soil pollution. Based on Table 1, which of maize…

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Shared statement

Question Science · 6

Multiple choice

Question Science · 6 — 6. Based on Figures 1 and 3, the air sample collected at which of the following combinations of time and location had the lowest O3 concentration? F. Time: 2:30 p.m. Location: Site B G. Time: 2:30 p.m. Location: Site C…

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Question Science · 7

Multiple choice

Question Science · 7 — 7. Based on Figures 1 and 3, which site had the highest overall average O3 concentration across all the air samples? A. Site A B. Site B C. Site C D. Site D

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Question Science · 8

Multiple choice

Question Science · 8 — 8. Based on Figures 1 and 3, the O3 concentration at 5:00 p.m. at Site B was approximately how many times as great as the O3 concentration at 2:00 p.m. at Site C? F. 0.5 G. 2 H. 3 J. 4

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Question Science · 9

Multiple choice

Question Science · 9 — 9. When a vacuum pump was operating during Step 2, it drew air through the solution in the test tube. Assuming that the pump drew air at a rate of 200 mL/min, how many milliliters of air were drawn through the solution…

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Question Science · 10

Multiple choice

Question Science · 10 — 10. At Site A, was the O3 concentration highest at 4:00 p.m. or at 5:30 p.m.? F. 4:00 p.m.; the I3 − concentration was highest at 4:00 p.m., and the higher the I3 − concentration, the higher the O3 concentration. G.…

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Question Science · 11

Multiple choice

Question Science · 11 — 11. Suppose that the actual O3 concentration at 12:30 p.m. at Site C was 43 ppb. Based on Figures 1 and 3, which of the following expressions would give the percent error for the value of the O3 concentration that was…

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Shared statement

Question Science · 12

Multiple choice

Question Science · 12 — 12. Consider the PPO activities listed in Table 1 for Polyphenols R, S, and T at a pH of 7.5. What is the order of those polyphenols, from the polyphenol that resulted in the lowest PPO activity to the polyphenol that…

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Question Science · 13

Multiple choice

Question Science · 13 — 13. Consider the PPO activities listed in Table 2 for Polyphenol Q and for Polyphenol T. For which of these polyphenols, if either, did the PPO activity always increase as temperature increased from 10°C through 35°C?…

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Question Science · 14

Multiple choice

Question Science · 14 — 14. Based on the passage, the chemical reaction catalyzed by PPO is best represented by which of the following expressions? F. o-quinone → polyphenol + O2 G. o-quinone + O2 → polyphenol H. polyphenol → o-quinone + O2 J.…

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Question Science · 15

Multiple choice

Question Science · 15 — 15. Based on Table 1, for Polyphenol S, how many millimoles of the product of the reaction catalyzed by PPO would be formed in 5 min if the solution had a pH of 7.0? A. 15 mmol B. 20 mmol C. 23 mmol D. 26 mmol

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Question Science · 16

Multiple choice

Question Science · 16 — 16. How many of the pH values listed in Table 1 are classified as basic? F. 1 G. 2 H. 3 J. 4

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Shared statement

Question Science · 17

Multiple choice

Question Science · 17 — 17. Suppose the group at Location 1 had recorded the time they observed Venus in the first contact position. This time, in UTC, would most likely have been: A. before 05:34:05. B. between 05:34:05 and 05:37:37. C.…

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Question Science · 18

Multiple choice

Question Science · 18 — 18. The term “interior egress” refers to the point during a transit at which the planet is seen near the end of its transit, is still seen entirely within the disk, and is just touching the inside edge of the disk.…

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Question Science · 19

Multiple choice

Question Science · 19 — 19. Based on Table 1, as observed from any of Locations 1−6, the amount of time it took for Venus to move from second contact to third contact was closest to which of the following? A. 5 hr 25 min B. 5 hr 40 min C. 11…

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Question Science · 20

Multiple choice

Question Science · 20 — 20. The international date line is located about 180° east from the prime meridian (0° longitude). Based on Table 1, which location was closest to the international date line? F. Location 1 G. Location 2 H. Location 3…

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Question Science · 21

Multiple choice

Question Science · 21 — 21. A student predicted that the farther west the location, the later the time that second contact would be observed. Do the results for Locations 2, 3, and 4 support this prediction? A. Yes, because Location 4 was…

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Question Science · 22

Multiple choice

Question Science · 22 — 22. Suppose that students at an additional location were able to record one, but not both, of the second and third contact times because sunset occurred at their location during the transit. Which of those contact…

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Shared statement

Question Science · 23

Multiple choice

Question Science · 23 — 23. Which of the following statements describes a difference between Study 2 and Study 3? In Study 2: A. values of θ from 0.6° through 4.2° were tested, whereas in Study 3, values of θ from 10.4° through 40.1° were…

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Question Science · 24

Multiple choice

Question Science · 24 — 24. Based on the results of the studies, for any particular liquid at any particular platform angle, as bubble radius increased, terminal velocity: F. increased only. G. decreased only. H. increased and then decreased.…

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Question Science · 25

Multiple choice

Question Science · 25 — 25. Consider the radii of the bubbles released into the GC at θ = 4.2° during Studies 1 and 3. In which study was the bubble having the greatest radius observed, and approximately what was that radius? A. Study 1 and…

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Question Science · 26

Multiple choice

Question Science · 26 — 26. Suppose that during Study 1, the platform had been set to an angle of 7.3°. A bubble with a terminal velocity of 30 mm/s would most likely have had a radius: F. less than 0.22 mm. G. between 0.22 mm and 0.40 mm. H.…

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Question Science · 27

Multiple choice

Question Science · 27 — 27. What was the dependent variable in Study 1? A. Bubble radius B. Platform angle C. Liquid composition D. Terminal velocity

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Question Science · 28

Multiple choice

Question Science · 28 — 28. Based on the results of Study 3, the terminal velocity at θ = 10.4° for a bubble having a radius of 0.13 mm would have been approximately the same as the terminal velocity at θ = 2.6° for a bubble having which of…

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Shared statement

Question Science · 29

Multiple choice

Question Science · 29 — 29. Students 3 and 4 would agree on which of the following statements regarding either Reaction 1 or Reaction 2? A. Reaction 1 can occur. B. Reaction 1 cannot occur. C. Reaction 2 can occur. D. Reaction 2 cannot occur.

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Question Science · 30

Multiple choice

Question Science · 30 — 30. Based on Student 1’s description of conservation, which of the following equations best represents the conservation of mass number for Reaction 2? F. 1 + 1 = 2 G. 1 + 1 = 2 + 0 H. 2 + 2 = 4 J. 2 + 3 = 4 + 1

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Question Science · 31

Multiple choice

Question Science · 31 — 31. Of the 4 reactions that the students were shown, which 2 have the same set of reactants? A. Reaction 1 and Reaction Y B. Reaction 1 and Reaction Z C. Reaction 2 and Reaction Y D. Reaction 2 and Reaction Z

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Question Science · 32

Multiple choice

Question Science · 32 — 32. A particular lithium (Li) nucleus contains 3 protons and 4 neutrons. Based on the available information, which of the following symbols best represents this Li nucleus? F. 3 4 Li G. 3 7 Li H. 4 4 Li J. 4 7 Li

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Question Science · 33

Multiple choice

Question Science · 33 — 33. Assume that protons are neither created nor destroyed in the reactions mentioned in the passage. How many protons in total are present in Reaction Y? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

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Question Science · 34

Multiple choice

Question Science · 34 — 34. Which of the following fusion reactions can occur according to Student 1 but cannot occur according to Student 2? F. 1 2 H + 1 2 H → 2 3 He + 0 1 n G. 1 2 H + 1 2 H → 2 4 He + 0 1 n H. 1 2 H + 2 3 He → 2 4 He + 1 1…

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Shared statement

Question Science · 35

Multiple choice

Question Science · 35 — 35. Based on the description of Table 1, average t represents the average time between: A. each jump made by G. gibberulus. B. each jump made by C. marmoreus. C. when observations began and the first G. gibberulus jump.…

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Question Science · 36

Multiple choice

Question Science · 36 — 36. Which of the following was the most likely reason a barrier was placed in the tank? F. To prevent the successful catch of prey G. To prevent the snails from escaping the tank H. To prevent the snails from seeing…

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Question Science · 37

Multiple choice

Question Science · 37 — 37. In Step 2 of the study, was each Group 4 snail placed facing toward the barrier or away from the barrier, and was that snail a predator or a prey to the Group 2 snail? A. Toward the barrier; predator B. Toward the…

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Question Science · 38

Multiple choice

Question Science · 38 — 38. Suppose the study had been repeated and the average t for one of the groups had been 2 min. Based on the results shown in Table 1, would the CO2 concentration of seawater for that group more likely have been an…

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Question Science · 39

Multiple choice

Question Science · 39 — 39. A scientist made 2 predictions: on average, the NJ for Group 1 would be greater than that for Group 2, and 80% of the snails in Group 1 would jump at least once. Are both of these predictions supported by the…

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Question Science · 40

Multiple choice

Question Science · 40 — 40. The ambient ocean CO2 concentration is approximately 415 parts per million (ppm). Consider the pair of groups for which the average value of d was 230 mm. Based on the description of the study and results in Table…

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